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Exam Code: CAT-140
Exam Name: CA (CA SiteMinder r12 Professional Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 When using the Active Directory namespace, which Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (IDAP)
feature can you implement.?
A. IDAP paging
B. IDAP referrals
C. IDAP sorting operations
D. SSL connectivity using a native Windows Certificate database
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which feature applies to application roles?
A. They are limited to a single directory or directory type.
B. They define which resources, or group of resources, an application can access.
C. They are a logical representation of a resource and how CA SiteMinder protects it.
D. They define a set of users who have access to an application resource or a group of application
resources.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Named expressions enable you to:
A. Examine core components.
B. Define reusable expressions.
C. Define the permissions on reports
D. Define ODBC user directory attributes.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: CAT-080
Exam Name: CA (CA Spectrum Infrastructure Manager r9 Administrator Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 When you create a custom search in the OneClick Console, the Matches Pattern comparison type is
available for text attributes. How do you specify the attribute value for this comparison type?
A. Variables or clauses
B. Community strings or operators
C. Stored procedures or algorithms
D. Wildcards or regular expressions
Answer: D

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NO.2 In the Contents pane of the OneClick Console, which tab displays a high-level schematic diagram of the
network as it is modeled?
A. List
B. Locater
C. Explorer
D. Topology
Answer: D

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NO.3 If you want to import or export preferences from another user or group, you must have the privilege to
access the:
A. Users tab.
B. Groups tab.
C. Privileges tab.
D. Information tab.
Answer: A

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NO.4 The two types of Global Collections in CA Spectrum are:
A. Public and private.
B. Static and dynamic.
C. Simple and complex.
D. Out-of-the-box and custom.
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is located in the partslist directory and contains the instructions that processed uses to start and
manage a specific process.?
A. IDB Files
B. server.xml
C. Proxy model
D. SystemEDGE agent
Answer: A

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Exam Code: CAT-241
Exam Name: CA (CA Clarity PPM v13.x Business Analyst)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 Which task can you perform using the Proxy tab on the Account Settings page?
A. Enable substitute processes.
B. Configure an Open Workbench connection.
C. Configure advanced settings for notifications.
D. Enable other users to respond to your action items.
Answer: D

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NO.2 You are setting up financial data in CA Clarity PPM. Which step is only needed if you are
implementing chargeback functionality?
A. Define classifications.
B. Create inputtype codes.
C. Create a cost/rate matrix.
D. Define General Ledger (GL) codes.
Answer: D

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NO.3 You can monitor a releases performance on the Release Dashboard page. Which portlets are
found on the Release Dashboard page? (Choose three)
A. Scorecard
B. Related Releases
C. Related Release Plans
D. Requirements ByTheme
E. Requirements By Priority
Answer: A,D,E

CA   CAT-241   CAT-241

NO.4 You have developed a new process and transported it to a production environment using XML
Open Gateway (XOG). To make the process operational, which step do you need to perform?
A. Change Mode to Active.
B. Validate the process only.
C. Run the Execute a Process job.
D. Validate and activate the process.
Answer: D

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NO.5 The Financial Status determines how transactions entered against a project are handled. If you
set the status to Hold, then:
A. The project is no longer open for financial processing.
B. Transactions can be fully processed within the system.
C. New transactions cannot accumulate and credit memos cannot be issued against a project.
D. New transactions cannot accumulate but existing transactions can be processed against the
project.
Answer: D

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Exam Name: BEA (System Administration Exam)
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Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 Scenario : You have made the decision to migrate all your operations onto WebLogic Server. An
application has been chosen from each department for the initial phase of migration one from each of
Sales, Marketing, Accounts, and Customer Service. The applications will be deployed as individual EAR
files to a cluster of WebLogic Server 9.x instances, each with a pool of connections to an Oracle 10g
database that provides corporate and departmental data services. The database team hopes to
upgrade the database to use Oracle RAC (Real Application Clusters) shortly, which will require you to
configure multiple sets of connections. Connectivity to the existing Service Engineer Dispatch system is
via a JMS message bridge. When a service engineer calls in with a report, a message is sent via JMS to
the Customer Service application deployed in WebLogic Server. The customer record in the Customer
Service database must be updated with details from the message. It is important that the message is
not lost because the call management system is not able to resend messages. To address this, the
Customer Service application is accessing a persistent JMS Queue using an XA compatible connection
factory.
In the future, each department will have its own schema within the Oracle database and the developers
are writing their code with this in mind. However, for now, it has been decided to store all data in a single,
company-wide schema. Which of the following approaches will make a future move to multiple schema
simple, while making the most efficient use of resources today?
A. Deploy an application-scoped Data Source module with each application.
B. Deploy a Data Source system module and assign it multiple JNDI names.
C. Deploy each department's application to its own WebLogic server.
D. Deploy a Data Source system module for each department's application.
Answer: B

BEA   0B0-108   0B0-108

NO.2 When configuring JMS Modules using the WebLogic Administration Console or WLST, the module
information will be stored in:
A. <modulename> stanza in the weblogic-application.xml file.
B. <modulename> stanza in the config\config.xml file.
C. <domain>/config/jms/<modulename>-jms.xml file
D. <domain>/servers/<servername>/targets/jms/<modulename>_<servername>.xml
Answer: C

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NO.3 WebLogic store-and-forward service is used for:
A. Storing and forwarding the configuration reliably to all the Managed Servers in a cluster
B. Storing log messages and forwarding them to the administration server for creating the Domain Log
C. Storing and delivering JMS messages reliably between applications across WebLogic Server 9.x
instances
D. Storing and forwarding EJB requests reliably to a back-end EJB cluster
Answer: C

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NO.4 What are the four basic components of a JMS system-resource module in the config.xml in WebLogic
9.x?
A. Name, target, subdeployment, descriptor-file-name
B. Domain, jms-server, connection factory, destination
C. Config.xml, jms-module, subdeployment, descriptor-file-name
D. Name, jms-module, subdeployment, descriptor-file-name
Answer: A

BEA   0B0-108   0B0-108   0B0-108

NO.5 The default location for storing JMS persistent messages in WebLogic Server 9.x is:
A. Database Store using JDBC
B. WebLogic Persistent Store using a file
C. LDAP server using the embedded LDAP server
D. Remote server using t3 socket buffering
Answer: B

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NO.6 Scenario : You have made the decision to migrate all your operations onto WebLogic Server. An
application has been chosen from each department for the initial phase of migration one from each of
Sales, Marketing, Accounts, and Customer Service. The applications will be deployed as individual EAR
files to a cluster of WebLogic Server 9.x instances, each with a pool of connections to an Oracle 10g
database that provides corporate and departmental data services. The database team hopes to
upgrade the database to use Oracle RAC (Real Application Clusters) shortly, which will require you to
configure multiple sets of connections. Connectivity to the existing Service Engineer Dispatch system is
via a JMS message bridge. When a service engineer calls in with a report, a message is sent via JMS to
the Customer Service application deployed in WebLogic Server. The customer record in the Customer
Service database must be updated with details from the message. It is important that the message is
not lost because the call management system is not able to resend messages. To address this, the
Customer Service application is accessing a persistent JMS Queue using an XA compatible connection
factory.
Before deploying it into the test environment, you review the configuration of the Sales department's
Enterprise Application, which is meant to contain a JDBC Application Module you are concerned that it
may not have been built correctly. Which of the following is not a requirement for JDBC modules?
A. It is contained in a file that ends in -jdbc.xml.
B. It includes an element that lists its targets.
C. It conforms to the weblogic-jdbc.xsd schema.
D. It includes a unique name element.
Answer: B

BEA   0B0-108   0B0-108

NO.7 Scenario : You have made the decision to migrate all your operations onto WebLogic Server. An
application has been chosen from each department for the initial phase of migration one from each of
Sales, Marketing, Accounts, and Customer Service. The applications will be deployed as individual EAR
files to a cluster of WebLogic Server 9.x instances, each with a pool of connections to an Oracle 10g
database that provides corporate and departmental data services. The database team hopes to
upgrade the database to use Oracle RAC (Real Application Clusters) shortly, which will require you to
configure multiple sets of connections. Connectivity to the existing Service Engineer Dispatch system is
via a JMS message bridge. When a service engineer calls in with a report, a message is sent via JMS to
the Customer Service application deployed in WebLogic Server. The customer record in the Customer
Service database must be updated with details from the message. It is important that the message is
not lost because the call management system is not able to resend messages. To address this, the
Customer Service application is accessing a persistent JMS Queue using an XA compatible connection
factory.
When starting WebLogic Server, the Marketing database is unavailable. Which of these Data Source
configuration options will ensure that the Marketing application can access its database once it becomes
available again?
A. Test Connections On Reserve
B. Test Frequency
C. Connection Creation Retry Frequency
D. Login Delay
E. Profile Connection Reservation Wait
Answer: C

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NO.8 Scenario : The Stock Control Application you are going to deploy to a cluster of WebLogic Managed
Servers requires a JMS destination to asynchronously deliver the messages to the back-end
Warehousing Application. To distribute the messages across the cluster, you decided to configure the
distributed destination. Also the Warehousing Application is a legacy application written to implement a
proprietary MQ API connecting an MQ-Series server. The Stock Control Application is implemented as a
web application on a WebLogic cluster delivering the message to the distributed destination. The cluster
has three Managed Servers hosted on two high powered machines and one low range/powered machine.
To distribute the physical destinations unevenly across the clustered WebLogic Managed Servers so that
the high-powered machines can receive more messages than the low-powered machines, configure the
distributed destination with:
A. "Allocate Members Uniformly" set to false and manually select more physical destinations from the
high-powered machines
B. "Uneven Distribution" set to true and select all the physical destinations
C. "Uniform Distribute Destination" set to true and select all the physical destinations from the
high-powered and low- powered machines
D. "Load Balancing Policy" set to Random and select only the destination from the high-powered machine
Answer: A

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NO.9 Scenario : You have made the decision to migrate all your operations onto WebLogic Server. An
application has been chosen from each department for the initial phase of migration one from each of
Sales, Marketing, Accounts, and Customer Service. The applications will be deployed as individual EAR
files to a cluster of WebLogic Server 9.x instances, each with a pool of connections to an Oracle 10g
database that provides corporate and departmental data services. The database team hopes to
upgrade the database to use Oracle RAC (Real Application Clusters) shortly, which will require you to
configure multiple sets of connections. Connectivity to the existing Service Engineer Dispatch system is
via a JMS message bridge. When a service engineer calls in with a report, a message is sent via JMS to
the Customer Service application deployed in WebLogic Server. The customer record in the Customer
Service database must be updated with details from the message. It is important that the message is
not lost because the call management system is not able to resend messages. To address this, the
Customer Service application is accessing a persistent JMS Queue using an XA compatible connection
factory.
Before deploying it into the test environment, you review the configuration of the Sales department's
Enterprise Application, which is meant to contain a JDBC Application Module ?you are concerned that it
may not have been built correctly. Most of an application's deployment descriptors only reference the
JDBC module using a JNDI name. Which file listed below is the only one that refers directly to the JDBC
Application Module file?
A. config.xml
B. application.xml
C. weblogic-ejb-jar.xml
D. weblogic-application.xml
Answer: D

BEA   0B0-108   0B0-108   0B0-108

NO.10 Scenario : You have made the decision to migrate all your operations onto WebLogic Server. An
application has been chosen from each department for the initial phase of migration one from each of
Sales, Marketing, Accounts, and Customer Service. The applications will be deployed as individual EAR
files to a cluster of WebLogic Server 9.x instances, each with a pool of connections to an Oracle 10g
database that provides corporate and departmental data services. The database team hopes to
upgrade the database to use Oracle RAC (Real Application Clusters) shortly, which will require you to
configure multiple sets of connections. Connectivity to the existing Service Engineer Dispatch system is
via a JMS message bridge. When a service engineer calls in with a report, a message is sent via JMS to
the Customer Service application deployed in WebLogic Server. The customer record in the Customer
Service database must be updated with details from the message. It is important that the message is
not lost because the call management system is not able to resend messages. To address this, the
Customer Service application is accessing a persistent JMS Queue using an XA compatible connection
factory.
The database team informs you that they have now implemented Oracle Real Application Clusters (RA for
the Customer Service database, and applications should connect to a second database node if the
primary node is unavailable. You set up a Multi Data Source in Failover mode, which is configured to
use two Data Sources PrimaryDS and SecondaryDS, each connecting to one Oracle RAC node.
WebLogic Server will fail over to SecondaryDS if a connection test to PrimaryDS fails. Under what other
condition will this happen by default (that is, with no additional options checke)?
A. If a connection to PrimaryDS is not released within Statement Timeout seconds.
B. If all the connections to PrimaryDS are in use.
C. If the administrator has suspended the PrimaryDS Data Source.
D. Failover will only occur if a connection test fails for a PrimaryDS connection.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 9L0-620
Exam Name: Apple (Mac OS X Directory Services v10.5 Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 102 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 In a default installation of Mac OS X v10.5, which command should you enter in Terminal to
search for a user named "kim" in all directory domains in your search path?
A. dscl localhost read /Search/Users/kim
B. dscl localhost read /Default/Users/kim
C. dscl localhost read /127.0.0.1 /Users/kim
D. dscl localhost read /Local/Default/Users/kim
Answer: A

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NO.2 CORRECT TEXT
In a default configuration of a Mac OS X v10.5 computer, ___ folder will contain Open Directory logs.
Answer: /Library/Logs/DirectoryService/
7. A search base for an LDAP request describes the location in the LDAP hierarchy where the
search will begin.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

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8. Please point out which type of entry in an LDAP schema defines the record type(s) that the
LDAP directory supports?
A. OID base
B. object class
C. syntax definition
D. attribute definition
Answer: B

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9. A search base for an LDAP request describes the directory services data types that correspond
to the LDAP entry being searched
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B

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10. A search base for an LDAP request describes the client application making the search request
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B

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11. You are configuring a Mac OS X Server v10.5 computer to search multiple directory domains.
How to specify the order in which the server searches the directories when authenticating users?
A. You should define a custom search path in the Authentication pane of Directory Utility.
B. You should run slapconfig -setauthmechanisms and specify the directory domain search order.
C. You should modify the mapping for the AuthenticationAuthority attribute in the Mappings pane
of Directory Utility.
D. You should configure the computer account and enter the authentication search path in the
Advanced pane of Workgroup Manager.
Answer: A

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12. A Mac OS X v10.5 computer is bound to an Active Directory server using the Active Directory
plug-in in Directory Access. Using the default configuration of the plug-in, what is the Mac OS X user
ID number for a user account provided by the Active Directory server?
A. The user ID number is always set to 500.
B. The user ID number is the value stored in the user account's UID attribute.
C. The user ID number is generated based on the user account's Globally Unique ID (GUID).
D. The user ID number is a randomly generated value that does not conflict with any user IDs used
by the local user records.
Answer: C

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13. Which statement describes a standard attribute in Mac OS X v10.5 directory services?
A. An attribute defined by RFC2307
B. An attribute required by Mac OS X v10.5 to publish services with Bonjour
C. An attribute required by Open Directory to support network logins in Mac OS X v10.5
D. An attribute in an Open Directory record that includes default mappings to one or more native
attributes in a local or connected directory
Answer: D

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14. Which attribute in a Mac OS X network user account stores the network location of the user's
home folder?
A. The UserHome attribute in the mount record
B. The VFSLinkDir attribute in the mount record
C. The ExportDirectory attribute in the computer record
D. The HomeDirectory attribute in the user account record
Answer: D

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15. In Mac OS X v10.5, which command should you enter in Terminal to send a HUP signal to a
process?
A. sig
B. kill
C. stop
D. signal
Answer: B

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NO.3 GeneratedUIDs provide for user identification in which TWO contexts?
A. file ACLs
B. file ownership
C. password policies
D. group membership
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 CORRECT TEXT
You can use____ to map an Open Directory record to an LDAP record?
Answer: Directory Utility

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NO.5 There is one Open Directory master with many replicas. But it fails to work fine. How should
you promote one of the replicas to master and have all the other replicas look to the new master?
A. You should use Server Admin to change one of the Open Directory replicas to a master, and then
change all of the remaining Open Directory replicas to standalone servers, and back to replicas.
B. You should use dsconfig ldap to change one of the Open Directory replicas to a master, and then
use Server Admin to change all of the remaining Open Directory replicas to standalone servers, and
back to replicas.
C. You should use Server Admin to change one of the Open Directory replicas to a master, and then
change the address of the Open Directory master on all of the remaining replicas, without changing
the role of the replicas.
D. You should use dscl to change one of the Open Directory replicas to a master, and then use server
admin to change the address of the Open Directory master on all of the replicas, without changing
the role of the replicas.
Answer: A

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NO.6 A search base for an LDAP request describes the network path to the LDAP server that the
request will search
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 9L0-827
Exam Name: Apple (Final Cut Pro 7 End User Exam Level One)
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Total Q&A: 66 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 Which keyboard shortcut allows you to view the entire sequence within the Timeline
Window.?
A. Command-Z
B. Control-Z
C. Option-Z
D. Shift-Z
Answer: D

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NO.2 HOTSPOT
In the Log and Transfer window below, click the icon that allows you to choose the
Apple ProRes format for converting AVCHD footage.
Answer: Pending

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NO.3 Which overlay displayed below indicates the Canvas playhead is parked at the end of a sequence?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
Answer: C

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NO.4 HOTSPOT
In the image below, click the icon that allows you to make a Lift edit, as shown above.
Answer: Pending

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NO.5 Which reconnect option allows you to manually navigate to a source media file?
A. Batch
B. Forget
C. Locate
D. Search
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which tool would perform the Before/After edit scenario shown above with the least
amount of clicks or keystrokes?
A. Ripple
B. Roll
C. Slide
D. Slip
Answer: A

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NO.7 HOTSPOT
In the image below, click the icon that allows you to display Title Safe.
Answer: Pending

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NO.8 HOTSPOT
In the image below, click the Solo button for A3.
Answer: Pending

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NO.9 Which actions allow you to open the Edit Marker dialog for a sequence marker?
(Select all that apply)
A. Command-double-click the marker.
B. With the playhead on the marker, press M.
C. Control-click the marker.
Answer: A, B

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NO.10 Which tool would perform the Before/After edit scenario shown above with the least
amount of clicks or keystrokes? (NOTE: Two edit points changed simultaneously.)
A. Ripple
B. Roll
C. Slide
D. Slip
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 9L0-314
Exam Name: Apple (Apple Hardware Recertification exam)
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Total Q&A: 124 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 The purpose of Apple's business conduct helpline is to _____.
A. ask technical support questions
B. report damaged service parts to Apple
C. report normal business operational details to Apple
D. raise a potential business conduct or ethics issue as it relates to Apple
Answer: D

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6. You are troubleshooting an iMac (Early 2008) that does not power on. You notice that all
diagnostic LEDs remain off when a known-good power cord is connected to the iMac and to a
known-good power outlet. What is most likely the cause of these symptoms?
A. Faulty power supply
B. Faulty optical drive
C. Faulty LCD panel
D. Faulty video card
Answer: A

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7. MacBook Air comes with a _____ MagSafe power adapter.
A. 45 Watt
B. 60 Watt
C. 65 Watt
D. 80 Watt
E. 85 Watt
Answer: A

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NO.2 You are troubleshooting an eMac that has no image on its built-in display. You have already
checked user controls and reset PRAM, but the issue persists. When you connect an external
display to the eMac's VGA output port and restart the eMac, you see a proper image on the
external display. Which of the following service modules would most likely be the cause of these
symptoms?
A. Display Analog Assembly
B. Power Supply Assembly
C. Logic Board
D. Hard drive
Answer: A

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NO.3 Why do you need to take precautions when disposing of CRT displays? SELECT TWO
A. CRT displays may contain toxic gases.
B. CRT displays may present a fire hazard.
C. CRT displays may implode if mishandled.
D. CRT displays may present a radiation hazard.
E. CRT displays may contain hazardous materials.
Answer: C,E

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NO.4 What component of a Mac mini (Early 2009) logic board requires use of an anti-static foam
support to avoid damage?
A. EMI clips
B. Video card
C. Large heat sink
D. Battery connector
Answer: A

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NO.5 The liquid cooling system inside a Power Mac G5 (Quad Late 2005) has failed, causing a
coolant
leak while the computer is on. According to Apple references, what should you do FIRST?
A. Use a patch kit to re-seal the leak.
B. Unplug the computer immediately.
C. Drain and refill the liquid cooling system.
D. Put the computer to sleep until the liquid dries.
E. Let the computer run overnight to evaporate any spilled liquid.
Answer: B

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Exam Name: APC (Data Center University Associate Certification)
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Total Q&A: 325 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 Which type of humidification system uses quartz lamps extended over an open pool of water to
release water vapor?
A. Infrared humidifier
B. Ultrasonic humidifier
C. Electromagnetic humidifier
D. Steam canister humidifier
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is an example of a standard building management system (BMS) protocol?
A. IPV6
B. TCP/IP
C. MODBUS
D. 10/100 BASE-T
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is defined as the force of electricity moving through a circuit?
A. Volt
B. Amp
C. Ohm
D. Frequency
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is required for the transfer of heat from one object to another?
A. A difference in airflow
B. A difference in volume
C. A difference in pressure
D. A difference in temperature
Answer: D

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NO.5 What are three advantages of biometric access control? (Choose three.)
A. Cannot be lost
B. Inexpensive to deploy
C. Difficult to fool the sensor
D. Cannot be shared with others
E. Always correctly identifies the user
Answer: ACD

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NO.6 What does GFCI mean?
A. Ground Fault Circuit Interrupter
B. General Facilities Cooling Index
C. Gaussian Filter Charge Indicator
D. Grounded Flaw Circuitry Installed
Answer: A

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NO.7 What does the term "5-nines" availability mean?
A. 5 minutes of downtime per year
B. 9 minutes of downtime per year
C. 14 minutes of downtime per year
D. 45 minutes of downtime per year
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which statement correctly defines direct current (DC)?
A. Only high voltage is used.
B. Electricity flows in one direction only.
C. The circuit does not have multiple paths.
D. The circuit is directly attached to the power source.
Answer: B

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NO.9 What is the difference between an undervoltage and a sag?
A. A sag lasts less time than an undervoltage condition.
B. A sag has less of a voltage drop than an undervoltage condition.
C. A sag is due to downstream loads and undervoltage is due to the power source.
D. A sag occurs in low voltage distribution and undervoltage occurs in high voltage distribution.
Answer: A

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NO.10 What would be a comprehensive strategy for protecting the most critical racks of a data center?
A. Key access to the critical racks
B. Video camera pointed directly at critical racks
C. Iris scanner at the entrance to the data center
D. Nested security perimeters with racks at the innermost level
Answer: D

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NO.11 What is the purpose of grounding?
A. To protect against electric shock
B. To step down 208 V power to 120 V power
C. To maintain the voltage during neutral wire bonding
D. To provide a path for the Ground Fault Interrupt (GFI) circuit
Answer: A

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NO.12 Click the Exhibit button.
Which air distribution method is displayed in the exhibit?
A. Flooded supply, flooded return
B. Flooded supply, fully ducted return
C. Flooded supply, locally ducted return
D. Locally ducted supply, flooded return
Answer: A

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NO.13 What is the unit of measurement of the electrical resistance of a circuit?
A. Volt
B. Amp
C. Ohm
D. Frequency
Answer: C

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NO.14 Click the Exhibit button.
Which air distribution method is displayed in this picture?
A. Fully ducted supply, flooded return
B. Flooded supply, fully ducted return
C. Flooded supply, locally ducted return
D. Locally ducted supply, flooded return
Answer: A

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NO.15 Click the Exhibit button.
Which air distribution method is displayed in this picture?
A. Flooded supply, fully ducted return
B. Flooded supply, locally ducted return
C. Locally ducted supply, flooded return
D. Locally ducted supply, flooded return
Answer: B

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NO.16 What describes the number of times AC current is switched back and forth over a period of 1 second?
A. Voltage
B. Frequency
C. Amperage
D. Power factor
Answer: B

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NO.17 What is the unit of measurement of the electrical current moving through a circuit?
A. Volt
B. Amp
C. Ohm
D. Frequency
Answer: B

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NO.18 How do enclosures improve rack system cooling?
A. By improving natural air flow
B. By improving fire suppression
C. By allowing hot and cold air to mix together
D. By preventing hot and cold air from mixing together
Answer: D

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NO.19 What are three power distribution components found in data centers? (Choose three.)
A. Ground loop
B. Branch circuit
C. Metered outlet strip
D. Power distribution unit (PDU)
E. Valve regulated lead acid (VRLA) battery
Answer: BCD

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NO.20 What describes the ratio of watts to volt-amps?
A. Frequency
B. Power factor
C. Actual power
D. Apparent power
Answer: B

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NO.21 What does the CFD acronym stand for?
A. Certified Field Dichotomy
B. Circular Flow Determination
C. Computational Finite Deviation
D. Computational Fluid Dynamics
Answer: D

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NO.22 Requiring frequent password changes can compromise security because _____.
A. Users tend to write down frequently changed passwords
B. It makes the password database an easier target for hackers
C. It makes it harder for legitimate users to access their own data
D. It burdens the IT help desk with requests for forgotten or expired passwords
Answer: A

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NO.23 What are three benefits of Inergen? (Choose three.)
A. It is non-conductive.
B. It has zero ozone depletion potential.
C. It has a low pressure delivery system.
D. It requires less storage tanks than Halon.
E. It is safe to discharge in an occupied area.
Answer: ABE

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NO.24 What is the highest cost UPS configuration?
A. System + system
B. Parallel redundant
C. Isolated redundant
D. Distributed redundant
Answer: A

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NO.25 The rear of an IT equipment rack is fitted with a duct that is connected to a drop ceiling plenum; the
plenum is connected by a duct to the perimeter CRAC unit. The CRAC unit discharges air into a raised
floor. The IT equipment rack is located above a hole in the raised floor which allows conditioned air to
enter the rack.
This is an example of which type of air distribution system?
A. Flooded supply, fully ducted return
B. Locally ducted supply, flooded return
C. Flooded supply, locally ducted return
D. Fully ducted supply, fully ducted return
Answer: D

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NO.26 Cooling towers are a typical component of which heat rejection system?
A. Water cooled system
B. Glycol cooled system
C. Air cooled split system
D. Air cooled self-contained system
Answer: A

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NO.27 What is a component of the network-critical physical infrastructure (NCPI)?
A. Voice over IP
B. Fire protection
C. Office supplies
D. Desktop application software
Answer: B

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NO.28 What is a difference between Single-phase and three-phase power?
A. Single-phase power is flat but three-phase power is sinusoidal.
B. Single-phase power is dependent on power factor but three-phase power is not.
C. Single-phase power is limited to approximately 120 kW but three-phase power is unlimited.
D. Single-phase power is more costly for the power company to distribute than three-phase power.
Answer: D

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NO.29 What is an advantage of choosing a four-post open frame rack over a two-post open frame rack?
A. Lower cost
B. Smaller footprint
C. Easier assembly
D. Increased strength
Answer: D

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NO.30 An infrared scan of cabling can detect what two problems? (Choose two.)
A. An overloaded circuit
B. A loose connection
C. Compatibility errors
D. Electrical interference
Answer: AB

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Alcatel-Lucent 4A0-101 study guide

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Exam Code: 4A0-101
Exam Name: Alcatel-Lucent (Alcatel-Lucent Interior Routing Protocols and High Availability)
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Total Q&A: 177 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 Click the exhibit button.
What triggers convergence of the routing protocol when the link between switch 1 and switch 2 goes
down?
A. Convergence is triggered when the adjacency between routers R1 and R2 drops as a result of Hello
timeouts. At this point, both routers R1 and R2 re-compute their link state database and send updates to
their adjacent routers. Once the process is complete for all routers, the networks have converged.
B. Convergence is triggered when the physical interfaces between routers R1 and R2 go down. At this
point, both routers R1 and R2 re-compute their link state database and send updates to their adjacent
routers. Once the process is complete for all routers, the networks have converged.
C. Convergence will not be triggered because switches cannot run routing protocols between them.
D. Convergence is triggered when the switches notify the routers about the link state information. At this
point, both routers R1 and R2 re-compute their link state database and send updates to their adjacent
routers. Once the process is complete for all routers, the networks have converged
E. Convergence is triggered when an LSA is sent from router R1 to router R2 to indicate that the link is
down. At this point, both routers R1 and R2 re-compute their link statedatabase and send updates to their
adjacent routers. Once the process is complete for all routers, the networks have converged.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following conditions will prevent an OSPF adjacency from reaching the full state? Choose
three answers.
A. MTU mismatch
B. Incorrect subnet mask
C. System interface not included in OSPF
D. Area ID not the same
E. Different metric set on each end of the link
F. Router ID not defined
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.3 What are the default Hello and Dead timer intervals for OSPF on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
A. 5 and 15 seconds
B. 10 and 30 seconds
C. 5 and 20 seconds
D. 10 and 40 seconds
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is the default preference value for a static route in the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
A. 0
B. 5
C. 10
D. 15
Answer: B

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NO.5 There is an IP host with IP address 10.2.3.1. A static route is created, using the "configure router
static-route 10.2.3.0/24 next-hop 10.1.2.1" command. What is the correct traceroute command to test this
static route on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
A. traceroute 10.2.3.1
B. traceroute 10.2.3.1 next-hop 10.1.2.1
C. traceroute next-hop 10.1.2.1
D. traceroute does not work on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR.
E. traceroute 10.1.2.1
Answer: A

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NO.6 Click the exhibit button.
A static route is created on router R1 using the "static-route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 10.3.3.2"
command. What command can be used to test the static route on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
A. ping static 10.5.5.5
B. ping static 0.0.0.0/0
C. ping 10.5.5.5
D. ping 0.0.0.0
Answer: C

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NO.7 When a router receives an IP packet, but does not find a match in the routing table for the destination IP
address, what actions are performed by the router?
A. The packet is flooded out all router interfaces.
B. The packet is dropped and an ICMP unreachable message is sent back to the source.
C. The packet is silently discarded.
D. The packet is flooded out all interfaces and an ICMP unreachable message is sent.
Answer: B

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NO.8 What causes an adjacency to change from down to two ways?
A. When a link state update is received in response to a link state request.
B. When a router receives a Hello packet that contains its own router ID in the neighbor list from a
neighbor.
C. When a router receives a database description packet from a neighbor.
D. When a link state acknowledgement is received in response to a link state update.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Click the exhibit button.
In the topology shown, router R1 is an ASBR configured to export external routes to OSPF. How many
type 4 LSAs will be present in the network?
A. One.
B. One for each of the routers in area 0
C. One for each of the external routes exported by router R1.
D. Type 4 LSAs are not generated in this network topology.
Answer: D

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NO.10 In an IP datagram, which of the following fields identifies the receiving application?
A. The protocol field of the transport layer header.
B. The port field of the transport layer header.
C. The protocol field of the network layer header.
D. The port field of the network layer address.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Static routing will be used in a network between a corporate head office, with many connected networks,
and a branch office, with one connection to the head office. Which of the following best describes the
likely configuration?
A. The corporate head office router will have a default route and the branch site will have a more specific
static route.
B. The corporate head office router and the branch office router will both have specific static routes.
C. The corporate head office router and the branch router will both have default routes.
D. The corporate head office router will have a more specific static route and the branch office router will
have a default route.
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which of the following commands can be used to display the number of SPF computations that have
been performed on a router?
A. show router ospf area <area-id>
B. show router ospf neighbor
C. show router ospf interface
D. show router ospf status
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which of the following statements describe the major features of OSPF? Choose two answers.
A. Fast reroute capability
B. Control traffic prioritization
C. Route redistribution
D. Traffic engineering extensions
E. Cut through forwarding
Answer: C,D

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NO.14 Click the exhibit button.
What is the command to configure a static route on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR router R1 to reach the
network behind router R2?
A. configure router static-route 139.120.121.0/24 next-hop 138.120.199.2
B. configure router static-route 139.120.121.0/24 next-hop 138.120.199.1
C. configure router static-route 138.120.199.2/24 next-hop 138.120.199.1
D. configure router static-route 139.120.121.0/24 next-hop 139.120.121.2
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which of the following statements apply to link state protocol behavior? Choose three answers.
A. Routers broadcast the entire route table to all neighbors.
B. Information about directly connected links is sent to all neighbors.
C. An adjacency database is maintained by each router.
D. The sequence number for an update is incremented as it is flooded from router to router.
E. The topological database is the same for all routers in a single area.
Answer: B,C

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NO.16 Which of the following statements regarding distance vectors protocols are true.?
(Choose two answers).
A. RIPvl, RIPv2, and BGP are distance vector protocols.
B. OSPF and IS-IS are distance vector protocols.
C. Routing tables are exchanged between neighbors; however, no routing table is transmitted beyond the
immediate neighbor.
D. Distance vector protocols use the Dijkstra SPF algorithm.
E. Routers that participate in distance vector routing protocols maintain full knowledge of distant routers
and how they interconnect
Answer: A

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NO.17 Click the exhibit button.
In the topology shown, router R1 is an ASBR configured to export external routes to OSPF. Assuming that
there are no stub networks, which of the following statements regarding type 4 LSA generation is true?
A. Router R1 generates a type 4 LSA that is flooded to areas 0, 1, and 2.
B. Router R3 generates a type 4 LSA that is flooded to areas 0, 1, and 2.
C. Router R3 generates a type 4 LSA that is flooded to areas 0 and 2.
D. Router R3 generates a type 4 LSA that is flooded to area 0, and router R6 generates a type 4 LSA that
is flooded to area 2.
Answer: D

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NO.18 Click the exhibit button.
What can you deduce from the show command on router R6?
A. The router R6 interface is in a multi-access segment. It is neither the DR nor the BDR for the segment.
The DR for this segment would be the router with router ID 10.10.10.5.
B. The router R6 interface is in a multi-access segment. It is neither the DR nor the BDR for the segment;
however, this command does not indicate whether 10.10.10.3 or 10.10.10.5 is the DR or BDR.
C. The router R6 interface is in a multi-access segment. It is the BDR, which is why it is not adjacent to the
other routers.
D. The router R6 interface is in a multi-access segment. It is neither the DR nor the BDR for the segment.
The DR for this segment would be the router with router ID 10.10.10.3.
Answer: B

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NO.19 Click the exhibit button.
Routers R1 R2, and R3 are running a classful routing protocol between them. Assuming that router R1
advertises all directly connected networks, how will these networks be represented in router R3's routing
table?
A. Router R3's routing table can only contain one of the routes, which will result in route flapping.
B. Router R3's routing table will have one entry for 10.1.1.0/24 and one entry for 10.1.2.0/24.
C. The networks will be represented with one entry of 10.0.0.0/8 in router R3's routing table.
D. The networks will be represented with one entry of 10.0.0.0/24 in router R3's route table.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Click the exhibit button.
The following command sequence is executed on router R2:
A:R2# configure router ospf router-id 10.10.10.99
A:R2# configure router router-id 10.10.10.66
On router R1, what router ID appears for router R2 directly after these commands are executed?
A. 10.10.10.99
B. 10.10.10.66
C. 10.10.10.2
D. 10.10.10.1
Answer: C

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