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Exam Code: HP2-E33
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP Converged Infrastructure Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 Which problem do companies experience most often as a result of having virtualized systems?
A. workload distribution control
B. decreased hardware performance
C. bottlenecks on virtual machines
D. virtual sprawl
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.2 According to IDC estimates, discrete purchasing activities in the area of networking, storage andservers
will start combining into a new Converged Infrastructure category. What is the estimatedvalue that this
new category will reach by 2012?
A. $20 billion USD
B. $25 billion USD
C. $30 billion USD
D. $35 billion USD
Answer: D

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NO.3 How does the focus of sales discussions changes as you become a consultative salesperson?
A. The price of products and services becomes more important.
B. Product features become more important.
C. You sell fewer products and more services.
D. You focus on delivering quantifiable business value.
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is the best way to establish yourself as a trusted advisor to your customers.?
A. Deliver products and services that meet customer expectations.
B. Demonstrate working proofs of concepts for each solution.
C. Help the customer devise metrics to measure their performance.
D. Speak strategically to their business challenges.
Answer: D

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NO.5 By up to which percentage can HP BladeSystem Matrix reduce the total cost of ownership?
A. 26%
B. 36%
C. 56%
D. 76%
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP0-M32
Exam Name: HP (Project and Portfolio Management Center 8.x Software)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 66 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 How do you enable tracking of scheduled and actual work appropriated to requests?
A. Manually create data fields on requests.
B. Manually create data fields on requests and link to resources.
C. Enable the Work Item field group.
D. Enable the Demand Management Scheduling Fields field group.
E. Set the corresponding field attributes.
Answer: C

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NO.2 When defining a timeout transition in a step source, which radio button do you click to define the
timeout?
A. Specific Event
B. Specific Result
C. Other errors
D. Specific Error
Answer: D

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NO.3 On the Request for Change request type, the user wants the Approved By field to be required when the
selected value for the Environment equals Production. What should you do to accomplish this?
A. Configure the Request Field Status Dependencies.
B. Create a simple default rule for the request type and set the event to Apply on Creation.
C. Create an advanced request type rule using SQL Default Logic.
D. Create an advanced request type rule using UI Rule Logic.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which tab do you click on to check if a validation is being used by other entities?
A. Usage
B. Ownership
C. Used By
D. Values
Answer: C

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NO.5 What are the workflow step sources? (Select three.)
A. Conditions
B. Flowcharts
C. Executions
D. Decisions
E. Graphics
F. Boolean
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.6 Currently, all users can create an IS Release Calendar Change request. How do you change this so
only a specified group can create this request?
A. Make a copy of the request and update the workflow security.
B. Change the access grants for the specified group only.
C. Set Field Level restrictions to the specified group for any user-based data fields on the request type.
D. Go to User Access on the request type and configure the participant permissions.
E. Modify the ownership information for the request type.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Your manager asks you about setting up email notifications that can be triggered on a request. How
should you respond?
A. Notifications can be configured for any field on a request.
B. Notifications can be configured only on custom fields.
C. Notifications can be configured only on specific standard fields.
D. Notifications can be configured only on drop-down list boxes.
Answer: C

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NO.8 What is the main function of a workflow parameter?
A. It allows you to capture additional data that a request type is unable to capture to be shown in the
request type as a field.
B. It allows you to capture the result of a workflow step and use this result to direct other stages in the
process.
C. It allows you to capture the value of a field in the request type and use this value to direct other stages
in the process.
D. It allows you to capture the result of a workflow step and use this result to prompt the user for input.
Answer: B

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NO.9 What must you edit to change the transition name from Complete to Approved?
A. the workflow validation value only
B. the workflow name only
C. the workflow validation value and the transition name
D. the workflow validation value and the workflow name
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which display options are available on a decision workflow step? (Select two.)
A. Always
B. Conditional
C. Never
D. Only When Active
E. Immediate
Answer: A,D

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Exam Code: HP0-M42
Exam Name: HP (HP Business Availability Center 8.x Software)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 68 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 What is the purpose of a view?
A. provides a subset of the IT universe model in the CMDB
B. provides a snapshot of the entire IT universe model in the CMDB
C. provides a differentiator between discovery-based CIs and adapters-based CIs
D. provides End User Monitor applications the capability to use the IT universe model in the CMDB
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is the purpose of the out-of-the-box views in Business Availability Center? (Select three.)
A. to populate the CMDB with relevant data
B. to provide a quick start for working with the CMDB
C. to view CI Types
D. to provide a predefined topology
E. to set up Service Level Agreements
F. to show a high level overview of the business
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.3 Which statement about a Pattern View is correct?
A. It uses a TQL query to quickly insert a substantial amount of CI data into the CMDB.
B. It is an extension of the Perspective Based View used to add related CIs in the view
dynamically.
C. It defines a static TQL query which extracts relevant information from the CMDB and provides
the currently defined CI status.
D. It defines a persistent TQL query which extracts relevant information from the CMDB to
continuously generate updated results reflected in the view.
Answer: D

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NO.4 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button. Place the steps to modify a VuGen script in the correct sequence.
Answer:

NO.5 Which statement about the SiteScope configuration tool is correct?
A. It is a wizard tool useful for configuringSiteScope monitors.
B. It ensures thatSiteScope monitors are configured correctly.
C. It is a utility for exportingSiteScope configuration data.
D. It is a tool for installingSiteScope.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP0-A23
Exam Name: HP (NonStop NS-Series Servers Configuration and Planning)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 74 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 On a 16-processor NonStop NS-series or NB-series system, what is the maximum number of
processors that can be configured in the LAN adapter's access list?
A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 16
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which utilities show object files that have been PROGID? (Select two.)
A. TPDC
B. DSAP
C. DCOM
D. FUP
E. PEEK
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 Which cable type is valid for Ethernet connections for a maintenance LAN?
A. SCSI cable
B. MMF type fiber optic cable
C. Category 5 unshielded twisted pair
D. coaxial cable
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which tool produces a report recommending disk cache changes based on evaluated
MEASURE
data?
A. NSX
B. SCF
C. GPA
D. XRAY
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which subsystem can be used to monitor state changes for a running application on a
NonStop
system?
A. Event Management Service
B. Spooler
C. TMF
D. Kernel Managed Swap Facility
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is the maximum number of Fiber Channel Disk Modules (FCDMs) that can be daisy
chained
together?
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which equipment does an NS-series system need to detect a power failure RIDE_THRU when
all
AC grid power sources have failed?
A. a site-wide UPS supporting SNMP
B. an R5500 rack-mounted UPS
C. a site-wide UPS supporting SMTP
D. a PDU monitored by OSM
Answer: B

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NO.8 How is an NS-series server different from an S-series server?
A. An NS-series server does not ship with built-in batteries for backup power.
B. An NS-series server has a built-in USB port on the maintenance switch.
C. An NS-series server does not require water cooling.
D. An NS-series server does not require air conditioning.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which subsystems or utilities should you use to set up a Daylight Savings Time (DST) transition
table? (Select two.)
A. TIME
B. TACL
C. SCF
D. DSTCOM
E. ADDDST
Answer: B,C

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NO.10 Which utility is used to set the number of ServerNet connections per fabric between a CLIM
and
each ServerNet switch?
A. SCF
B. OSM Low-Level Link (LLL)
C. OSM service connection (SC)
D. CLIMCOM
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP2-B35
Exam Name: HP (HP Imaging and printing Sale fundamentals)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 81 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 What are the core HP value propositions for imaging and printing products.?
A. affordability, reliability, quality, simplicity
B. complete product portfolio, superior output, reliability
C. affordability, quality, complete product portfolio
D. reliability, simplicity, real-world performance, superior output
Answer: A

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NO.2 What are the advantages that resellers get by selling HP devices? (Select two.)
A. lowest hardware prices in the industry
B. just-in-time shipping of products
C. free toner with every sold printer
D. brand recognition that opens doors for more sales
E. access to a large installed base of existing customers
Answer: D,E

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NO.3 What is the best way to do a realistic performance comparison of two competitive printers?
A. performing side-by-side comparisons of data sheets
B. warming up the printers prior to testing
C. giving each vendor the same document to print offsite
D. testing both printers in the customer's working environment
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which feature improves real-world performance on HP Color LaserJets and color MFPs?
A. intelligent color calibration
B. shorter paper path
C. flexible paper handling
D. total print management
Answer: A

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NO.5 How do HP Edgeline technology printheads work in Edgeline MFPs?
A. They remain stationary.
B. They move with the paper.
C. They work with PhotoREt III.
D. They consume less toner.
Answer: A

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NO.6 What does an HP Color LaserJet provide that makes the Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) lower
than that of competitors?
A. the cheapest base price
B. consumables' refilling capabilities
C. fewer replacement parts and long-life consumables
D. standard finishing capabilities
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is the key driver in a transactional type of sale?
A. the customer
B. long-term planning
C. perceived customer benefits
D. the product
Answer: A

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NO.8 Why does HP continue to lead the imaging and printing industry? (Select two.)
A. product reliability
B. less expensive products/services
C. marketing expertise
D. more printing formats
E. broadest product portfolio
Answer: A,E

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NO.9 Which HP technology is designed to simplify printer driver management?
A. HP Instant Support
B. HP Universal Print Driver
C. HP Easy Printer Care
D. HP Color Access Control
Answer: B

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NO.10 What is a key reason that HP monochrome LaserJet print quality is better than that of competitive
products?
A. HP ColorSphere toner
B. higher fuser temperatures
C. smoothest gray ramp
D. HP Scalable Print technology
Answer: C

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NO.11 How many customers and printers are in the HP imaging and printing worldwide installed base?
A. 30 million customers, 200 million printers
B. 100 million customers, 400 million printers
C. 400 million customers, 1 billion printers
D. 200 million customers, 600 million printers
Answer: B

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NO.12 At what percentage does the use of color in printed communication increase readership?
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which HP technology contributes to the HP value proposition of "simplicity"?
A. HP FastRes 1200
B. HP Universal Print Driver
C. HP Instant-on Fuser
D. HP Output Server
Answer: B

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NO.14 What is the name of the HP high quality and performance ink?
A. HP Viverata
B. HP Vivera
C. HP ImageREt
D. HP PhotoREt
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which phrase describes real-world performance?
A. the ability of a printer to collate and staple without jamming
B. the total cost of ownership, including memory and accessories
C. the total printing process, from clicking Print, to a finished page in the output bin
D. the movement of a print job through the network
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP2-B70
Exam Name: HP (HP Imaging and Printing Technical Fundamentals)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 59 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 What happens after a Proof and Hold job is sent to an HP Color LaserJet.?
A. It remains on the hard disk until the printer is switched off.
B. It remains on the hard disk, even when the printer is switched off.
C. It remains in the memory of the printer.
D. it is deleted from the printer.
Answer: C

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NO.2 How do you print a job using the Stored Job option?
A. use the driver selection for printing stored jobs
B. use HP Web Jetadmin
C. use the user name you selected on the control panel to view the Stored Job option
D. use the control panel to select the stored job for printing
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which printer driver language uses HPGL commands while printing a bounding box?
A. PCL5
B. PostScript
C. PCL3
D. PCL6
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is an advantage of PCL 6 over PCL 5c?
A. PCL 6 supports color printing and PCL 5c does not.
B. PCL 6 is compatible with all PCL printers and PCL 5c is not
C. PCL 6 can use object-based commands instead of only HPGL commands.
D. PCL 6 has improved paper handling functions
Answer: C

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NO.5 A graphic arts business is creating images for printing on an offset press. The business is using an HP
Pinter for printing the final proofs. EPS files are often sent to the business to be included in the images
Printed.
Which driver should be used?
A. PCL6
B. PCL5
C. PCL5e
D. PostScript
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP2-E41
Exam Name: HP (HP Visual Collaboration-System Administrator)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 44 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 Which type of rooms are public meeting rooms?
A. rooms that do not have an owner
B. rooms any user can use to hold a meeting
C. rooms that do not permit sharing
D. rooms that cannot be deleted or disabled
Answer: A

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NO.2 The Visual Collaboration architecture revolves around which required components? (Select two.)
A. HPVC Portal
B. HPVC Router
C. HPVC Desktop
D. HPVC Gateway
Answer: C,D

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NO.3 How do you remedy the alarm indicating "High CPU utilization limits quality of conference"?
A. Quit all other running SW applications. If using USB camera, microphone and speaker, make sure
camera is plugged directly to a computer USB port.
B. Quit unused open SW applications. If using a USB camera, microphone and speaker, make sure
camera is plugged into a dock station or USB extension hub.
C. Verify power management settings ensuring it is in power save mode.
D. Run PC system default Disk Defragmentation and Clean-up.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which statements are true about Groups.? (Select two.)
A. You can assign users to Groups to manage permissions for large system deployments.
B. A user can only be a part of one Group.
C. Normal users are able to create their own Groups.
D. Groups set common permissions for users.
Answer: B,C

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NO.5 What is the recommended volume setting to start with for most speaker phone systems for an HPVC
Room?
A. set microphone 60% and speaker at 60%
B. set microphone 70% and speaker at 70%
C. set microphone 60% and speaker at 70%
D. set microphone 70% and speaker at 60%
E. set microphone and speaker at user preferred settings
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP2-Z07
Exam Name: HP (Advanced Enterprise Networking)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 What is the maximum number of I/O modules supported by a member of the S9500E family?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 16
D. 18
Answer:B

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NO.2 What are the advantages of using SFP+ transceivers instead of X2 transceivers? (Select two.)
A. larger buffer
B. higher throughput
C. higher port density
D. lower power usage
E. more cable options
Answer:C,D

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NO.3 Match each Open Application Architecture (OAA) mode with the correct description.

NO.4 What is the minimum number of switch fabrics necessary to enable basic functioning of an S12508
switch?
A.4
B.6
C.8
D.12
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which software feature is available on the Advanced I/O modules for the 9500E switches, but is not
available on the Standard I/O modules?
A. IRF
B. BFD
C. VPLS
D. MPLS
Answer:C

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NO.6 Match each H3C switch model with its description.

NO.7 Match each H3C switch model with the correct positioning.

NO.8 Which types of 10GbE interfaces are supported by the S12500E switches? (Select two.)
A. XFP
B. CX4
C. SFP
D. X2
E. SFP+
Answer: AE

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NO.9 A customer requires full wire speed performance from an S12508 switch provisioned with 48-port
gigabit LPUs in all slots. How many switch fabrics are necessary to fulfill this requirement?
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 12
Answer:C

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NO.10 Which switch provides the highest 10GbE port density in a 1RU platform?
A. S5800-60C-PWR
B. S5800 Gigabit Stackable
C. S5820X-28S
D. S7500E
Answer:C

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Exam Code: HP0-J51
Exam Name: HP (Installing HP StorageWorks Solutions)
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Total Q&A: 123 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 What is the recommended minimum block size that should be configured when backing up to D2D
systems?
A. 64KB
B. 128KB
C. 256KB
D. 1MB
Answer: A

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NO.2 In an HP P2000 storage array, the Drive Spin Down (DSD) feature can reduce power consumption by
powering down drive spindles. Which statements correctly describe the DSD feature? (Select two.)
A. Disk scrubbing is disabled when DSD is enabled.
B. Only RAID configured vdisks can be spun down.
C. Drive Spin Down delay defaults to 15 minutes.
D. Default state is enabled.
E. Only drives that reside in vdisks can be spun down.
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 Which method of deduplication is used in the HP StoreOnce D2D devices?
A. fixed-length data segmenting
B. variable-length data segmenting
C. object-level differencing
D. hash-based chunking
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which HP P4000 management tool should you use to gather storage system status information?
A. Centralized Management Console (CMC)
B. HP Integrated Lights Out (ILO)
C. Web Based Enterprise Management (WBEM)
D. System Management Homepage (SMH)
Answer: A

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NO.5 Your customer wants to monitor the performance of a P4000 G2 system. What is the minimum time
sample interval that can be set using the Performance Monitor?
A. 1 second
B. 5 seconds
C. 30 seconds
D. 1 minute
Answer: B

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NO.6 What information is displayed in the Configuration View panel overview of the P2000 SMU about the
status of any FC hosts attached to it? (Select two.)
A. connection type
B. WWPN
C. HBA Firmware revision
D. operating system
E. profile
Answer: B,E

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NO.7 A customer wants to add a drive enclosure to his existing P2000 G3 system. What is the maximum
distance allowed between enclosures?
A. 1m
B. 2m
C. 5m
D. 10m
Answer: B

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NO.8 When running diagnostics on a P4000 system you notice that the "BBU Capacity Test" is unchecked by
default. Why is this? (Select two.)
A. The test is not supported on any P4000 system.
B. The test can take up to 24 hours to complete.
C. The test can overwrite HDD data.
D. The test sends data to HP via the Internet.
E. The test turns off the controller's cache.
Answer: B,E

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NO.9 Which CLI command is used to verify the setting of the IP address of a P2000 G3 Storage Array?
A. show ip-address
B. show network-parameters
C. show network-address
D. show network
Answer: B

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NO.10 What is a feature of P4000 snapshots?
A. Snapshots are thin provisioned but can be made fully provisioned after being created.
B. As the original volume data changes the snapshot remains the same as the volume at its creation time.
C. The same amount of space is reserved for the snapshot as the original volume.
D. The snapshot is thinly provisioned and requires no reserve space.
Answer: D

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NO.11 Where can you find the DHCP-assigned IP address on your D2D system during initial
configuration?
A. Web Management Interface
B. VGA Console
C. Telnet
D. CommandView TL
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which browser is supported to access X1000 Windows Server Remote Administration Applet from a
non-Microsoft computer?
A. Apple Safari
B. Google Chrome
C. Microsoft Internet Explorer
D. Mozilla Firefox
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which P2000 G3 Combo FC/iSCSI controller ports would be most suitable for replicating snapshots to
remote locations?
A. 1GbE iSCSI
B. 10GbE iSCSI
C. 4Gb FC
D. 8Gb FC
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which D2D network configuration mode will improve the availability of overall network bandwidth?
A. Single Port Configuration
B. Dual Port Configuration
C. High Availability (Port Failover) Configuration
D. High Availability (Link Aggregation) Configuration
Answer: D

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NO.15 A consultant meets with a customer to define a Disaster Recovery plan based on HP VLS technology.
What are the most important parameters the consultant must obtain from the customer.? (Select two.)
A. Recovery Point Objective
B. Restore Point Objective
C. Recovery Time Objective
D. Retention Point Objective
E. Retention Time Objective
Answer: A,C

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NO.16 A consultant is discussing with a customer how to create a four node multi-site cluster with the P4000
G2 family of products. The customer wants two physical sites, one being the primary. What is the
minimum total number of managers that should be run to guarantee quorum?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: B

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NO.17 The HP P2000 G3 FC Storage Array supports both the MSA70 and D2700 disk enclosures. When
connecting these enclosures to the P2000 G3 FC controller, where can the MSA70 enclosure be cabled
without limiting performance?
A. any location
B. before all D2700 enclosures
C. after all D2700 enclosures
D. after the first D2700 enclosure
Answer: C

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NO.18 In the Storage Management Utility for a P2000 G3, which wizards are available to allow you to quickly
and easily set up the system? (Select two.)
A. Drive Wizard
B. Configuration Wizard
C. Replication Setup Wizard
D. Hosts Wizard
E. Physical Setup Wizard
Answer: B,C

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NO.19 You are meeting with a customer who has many different backup applications and operating systems.
To identify which operating systems are supported with each backup application by VLS and D2D, which
HP document should you consult?
A. Storage Compatibility Matrix
B. EBS Compatibility Matrix
C. Backup Solutions Guide
D. Storage Backup Matrix
Answer: B

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NO.20 A customer has two HP P2000 G3 FC arrays. One is located at a remote branch office. You have been
asked to configure a replication set between the two arrays. Which components are required to form a
replication set? (Select two.)
A. external view volume
B. primary view volume
C. host accessible remote volume
D. destination snap pool
E. source snapshot
Answer: A,D

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Exam Code: HP0-J54
Exam Name: HP (Advanced SAN Solutions)
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Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 In addition to considering application data change rate, what must you do to accurately calculate the
total change rate for replicated data? (Select two.)
A. Identify correct buffer credits.
B. Measure the number of write IOPS.
C. Determine the partition offset.
D. Estimate the average block size.
E. Verify RAID stripe step size.
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 Which Converged Enhanced Ethernet (CEE) feature distinguishes between traffic types to avoid
congestion due to bursting traffic sources?
A. Enhanced Transmission Scheduling (ETS)
B. Congestion Notification (QCN)
C. Priority-based Flow Control (PFC)
D. Data Center Bridging Exchange (DCBX) Protocol
Answer: C

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NO.3 During an assessment of a B-Series SAN switch, a SAN architect notices that the switch is partitioned
into a set of logical switches. What is the name of this feature.?
A. Inter VSAN routing
B. Transparent Routing
C. Virtual Fabric
D. VSAN
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which factor must you consider when you calculate the buffer credits for links between distant fabrics?
A. dispersion
B. transceiver type
C. latency
D. attenuation
Answer: C

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NO.5 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button. The customer is concerned about SAN security. Match each attack class to its
description.
Answer:

NO.6 Click the Exhibit button.
Which factors need to be considered when calculating the change rate for replication? (Select two.)
A. queue depth
B. data compressibility
C. partition alignment
D. network bandwidth
E. link latency
Answer: D,E

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NO.7 Which replication protocols can be used on an HP Enterprise Virtual Array system using Continuous
Access EVA and current firmware? (Select two.)
A. HP FCIP
B. HP SAS-FCP
C. HP FC
D. HP SCSI-FCP
E. HP SAS
Answer: C,D

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NO.8 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button. Assuming that distributed data access is required, assign the correct performance
levels to the given topologies.
Answer:

NO.9 What is the primary factor to be considered when sizing the replication link between HP D2D backup
systems?
A. blackout window length
B. WAN link efficiency
C. minimum reverse replication bandwidth
D. change rate of application data
Answer: D

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NO.10 Click the Exhibit button.
What is the most likely cause of the tape corruption?
A. compression rate of the source data
B. feed speed to the tape drive
C. file structure of the backed up data
D. CRC checks after the backup
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP3-C32
Exam Name: HP (HP Color LaserJet Enterprise CP4020/CP4520 Series Printer)
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Total Q&A: 30 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 What can be used to disable or alter the printer driver Services tab.?
A. embedded Web server (EWS)
B. HP Driver Preconfiguration Utility
C. printer driver Properties menu
D. Installable Options section of the device software CD
Answer: B

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NO.2 In which modes can the HP Universal Print Driver (UPD) be installed?
A. discrete and universal
B. stationary and mobile
C. traditional and dynamic
D. specific and generic
Answer: C

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NO.3 What are benefits of HP EasyColor? (Select two.)
A. Images are sectioned into multiple units.
B. Print quality is improved.
C. Print time is reduced.
D. MTIFF-specific printing is quicker.
E. RGB color is handled more efficiently.
Answer: B,C

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Total Q&A: 180 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-29

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NO.1 What type of approach is used to deploy, operate, and optimize Cisco solutions?
Select the best response.
A. Lifecycle advantages
B. Lifecycle services
C. Lifestyle services
D. Lifestyle advantages
E. Lifetime advantage
Answer: B

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NO.2 What are the three commonly recognized top-level business drivers for data centers? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. Protecting the business from information outages
B. A need to decentralize IT assets
C. Increasing the rate of adoption of new, nonstandardized technologies
D. Optimizing the efficiency with which IT operates
E. An increased need for specialized IT silos
F. Growing IT systems
Answer: ADF

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NO.3 Which technology is best deployed to meet the needs of users who desire secure remote access to
corporate resources?
Select the best response.
A. VPN-enabled routers
B. Cisco Security Agent
C. Cisco Adaptive Security Appliances
D. Cisco Adaptive Security Device Manager
E. Cisco Intrusion Prevention System
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which port number is used to communicate to an SMTP server?
A. 20 or 21
B. 22
C. 25
D. 321
Answer: C

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NO.5 What resource allows Cisco partners to get funding for preapproved activities, such as catalogs,
yellow pages, events, trainings, e-mail blasts, and advertising?
Select the best response.
A. Solution Expert
B. Quote Builder
C. Joint Marketing Fund
D. Cisco Discovery
E. Steps to Success
Answer: C

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NO.6 In the OSI model, which layer would a router be defined in?
A. Data link
B. Network
C. Network interface
D. Transport
Answer: B

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NO.7 On what type of network does the Cisco Unified Communication system reside?
Select the best response.
A. Independent voice, video, and data networks
B. Voice networks only
C. A single, joined voice, video, and data network
D. Data networks only
E. Wireless networks only
Answer: C

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NO.8 What is the key element in SMB solutions?
Select the best response.
A. They provide the lowest possible cost.
B. They reduce the cost and complexity associated with multiple services in a single device.
C. They reduce complexity by eliminating features.
D. Consumer-level products are suitable for SMB needs.
E. Reliability is not important since replacement products are inexpensive.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which stage of Cisco Lifecycle Services comprises services that ensure the design and deployment of
the desired network functionality?
Select the best response.
A. Prepare
B. Plan
C. Design
D. Implement
E. Operate
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which type of deployment utilizes ISRs with Cisco IOS Security feature sets to provide an ideal,
low-cost, yet capable and powerful platform?
Select the best response.
A. Small deployments
B. Large deployments
C. Medium deployments
D. Commercial deployments
E. Financial deployments
Answer: A

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NO.11 What are four layers in the ARPA (TCP/IP) architecture?
A. Application, session, transport, and physical
B. Application, transport, network, and network interface
C. Presentation, network, data link, and network interface
D. Presentation, transport, data link, and physical
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which program has been specifically designed for small-sized and medium-sized businesses and
provides easy, cost-effective network support to help ensure reliable operations, contain costs, and
protect their investments?
Select the best response.
A. Cisco Software Application Support Services
B. Cisco Focused Technical Support Services
C. Cisco Smart Foundation Service
D. Cisco SP Base
E. Cisco SMARTnet Onsite
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which layer of the OSI model does FTP use?
A. Application
B. Data link
C. Network
D. Transport
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which portal provides timely and concise information for sales professionals in competitive situations?
Select the best response.
A. Solution Expert
B. Quote Builder
C. Sales Accelerator
D. Competitive Edge
E. Cisco Discovery
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which three of the following are benefits of Cisco TAC? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. Direct or indirect access to the global Cisco TAC organization
B. The ability to access teams of experts
C. Onsite engineering support
D. Minimizes risks associated with network downtime
E. Upgrades from base Cisco IOS Software to advanced feature set Cisco IOS Software
F. Project management and planning support
Answer: ABD

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NO.16 Which tool provides a complete guide that makes it easier for partners, regardless of their experience
level, to sell Cisco Unified Communications solutions to their customers?
Select the best response.
A. Solution Expert
B. Quote Builder
C. Sales Accelerator
D. Competitive Edge
E. Cisco Discovery
Answer: C

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NO.17 What feature does the Partner E-Learning Connection provide?
Select the best response.
A. Full versions of all Cisco technical-level classes
B. Live instructor-led, web-based classes
C. Flexible, web-based knowledge and learning
D. Hosted website that partners use to deliver e-learning to customers
E. Lists of training-partner class offerings
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which three products are targeted primarily for deployment in enterprise environments? (Choose
three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. Cisco 1800 Series ISRs
B. Cisco Catalyst 4500 Series Switches
C. Cisco Catalyst 2960 Series Switches
D. Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Switches
E. Cisco 7200 Series Routers
F. Cisco 2800 Series ISRs
Answer: BDE

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NO.19 How many leading bits are used to determine the class of an Internet address?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which network topology best describes how EMC Centera nodes are networked together?
A. Bus
B. Mesh
C. Ring
D. Star
Answer: D

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